what is the relationship between Satan & the Devil?

Everywhere the word "Satan" is employed in the Scriptures, it is capitalized. Conversely, the expression "devil" (with the exception of Revelation 12:9 and 20:2) is always lowercase. That indicates "Satan" as a proper name. Certainly its meaning also speaks to his character, as many Biblical names do. So, his proper name is "Satan."

The name "Satan" appears nineteen times in the Old Testament (all are capitalized), and the word "devil" does not appear at all. We can conclude several things from these facts:
(1) Satan is his proper name. 
(2) He is a particular person, though a spirit being, not just a force or power. 
(3) The name Satan is of Hebrew origin (the original language of the Old Testament).
(4) The word "devil" is a Greek word (the original language of the New Testament), hence its lack of appearance in the Old Testament (written in Hebrew).

The nineteen instances where the word "Satan" is used in the Old Testament are all one Hebrew word. The word rendered as "devil," in the singular, are four different Greek words. Two are variations or derivatives of the Greek word daimon. So, three of them have a commonality.

In some cases, the words "Satan" and "devil" seem to be synonymous  and interchangeable. For instance, Matthew 4:1 says Jesus was "tempted of the devil." However, Mark 1:13 says He was "tempted of Satan." Obviously, they are interchangeable in this instance. However, the difference is that the Greek words are broader and more descriptive and go beyond speaking of his person and describe his purposes and performances.

​Numerous verses indicate this, such as: 
• "tempted of the devil" (Matthew 4:1)
• "possessed with a devil" (Matthew 9:32)
• "vexed with a devil" (Matthew 15:22)
• "the devil had thrown him" (Luke 4:35)
• "the devil threw him down" (Luke 9:42)

 I believe that the broader Greek language does two things: (1) it uses "devil" to speak of him as a person; but (2) it speaks more broadly of his purposes and performances. When we see mention of the word "devil" in the New Testament, it is both because of the language difference and the greater enlightenment in this New Testament dispensation concerning the "devil" and his works concerning man.

Earl R. Borders

From the March 2023 issue of The Gospel Trumpeter